Because IC2E is so different from original IC2.
Nov 5th 2013 Official Post #2 Quote from NDospark320 Because IC2E is so different from original IC2. Nope, not happening for now.
Nov 5th 2013 Official Post #4 Quote from GregoriusT Nope, because it is IC^2^2 It is IC2 * 2 = 2IC2 ."IC^2^2" would be (IC2)2 = IC4 Unless you are telling that IC4 is better than IC3